Chinazor OnianwahIf there is no evidence of Jewish presence in Egypt, how could the Passover have occurred? And if the parting of the Red Sea was fabricated by Emperor Constantine from the story of an Egyptian prince who lost a ring into the Nile River as he swam and asked his magician to part the Nile so that he can retrieve it, what really is the basis of Judaism? We already know the story of Adam and Eve having two sons- Cain and Abel, and one killed the other, yet one fathered a nation miraculously did not make sense. Unless he killed his father and slept with his mother. If it didn’t make sense then, it shouldn’t make sense now.
Christians still cling to the opinion that their Bible is infallible. They delight in…
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Chinazor
Great Questions. The problem here is distinguishing between what parts of the Torah we know is true, what we do not know is true, and what we know is not true in the Torah.
First, though you know that Constantine’s bureaucrats (a “pagan” who never became a Christian) edited the Christian bible to conform with Roman law, he did not muck with the text of the Torah.
Second, no one actually knows when the exodus story was written or when Passover was first celebrated. One thory is that it was first written after the conbquest of Jerusalem by the Hebrews as a way of justifying rule by the Davidic clan and the Aaronic priesthood.
Third, nothing in archaeology supports the slave story or the exodus story. What we do know is that Egypt had many slaves and many of those were semitic. We also know that the Egyptians have a different linguistic root and probably a different genetic origin that the semites.
Fourth we know that the literal story in Exodus is false because archaeology has shown that no movement of the numbers of people described across the Sinai would have been possible (unless you believe God made manna) due to the arid conditions. Archaelogy has also failed to find a trace of such a mass movement. This, however, does not rule out the possibility of something much smaller.
Fifth, whuke there were semites in Egypt, there is n evidence that these people were enslaved as a people .. any more than any other conquered people. Nor is there any evidence that the smeites in Egypt identified themselves as Jews or hebrews, The term that sounds like hebrew, habiru, is a generic rerm for wandering desert folks .. eg today’s Bedouin .. and was an Egyptian term not a term the Semites used for themselves.
Sixth. There was an identifiable semitic people in Egyot, the Hyksos. They conquered and tules the lower kingdom and has pharoahs incuding one called Jacob! They were driven out, possibly to the Judean Highland,s by conquerors form the upper Kingdom. This happened earlier than the BELIEVED date of the Exodus.
I have been accuse of been anti-Semite in the past when I make similar statements you just made. So this begs another question, why do some in the Jewish community use this false presence of people that may happened 3000 years ago to justify the acquisition of Palestinian teritory. And dont tell me it was vacant back then.
Of course it was not vacant then, Humans have lived in the Levant for at least 30.000 years, longer than that is oyu include our cousins the Neanderthal.
While no ne knews excltyn when the firts ethnic Jews appeared, the best evidence is that we wewre a Vannaqni poeple living in the Judean Hills. There are actually villages there, archaeological finds, that show an absenbc eof pork bones and presenc eof house shrines where the usual statue of Baal is replaced by an empty chair.
Our language, Hebrew, itself is a form of Canaani/Phoenician.
The Phoenicians were coastal people with a cu;ture all over the Med. The Canaanai were the local admixture wityh them.
The term “Palestine” actually is “Phoenicia” as mutated into a Hebrew or Arabic or Roman word. It is also the Philistines of the books of Prophets and Kings.
So, back to your question. Jewish extemists and the Lkhudnik extremists claim ownerhsio of the west bank by a historic tie and a regious one. Leab=ving the latter aside, ther eis anothe rissue. Whilke gentics has porven that we and the Arabs are more or less the same pople SAME MEANS SAME!
My arguement as a PROsemite is that a Muslim smeite (Arab) and a Jewish Semite jew both have an ancestral root. Like the Hindu (Indian) popele of the subcontinet we are divided not bey race or gnetic orih=gin, but be religion. We need a peaceful way tyo live side by side.
Discussion form FACEBOOK:
Alex Ebimobowei Babudoh
Alex Ebimobowei Babudoh My brother, it is often illogical sometimes, if you have to factor how IT systems work, particularly the Internet, WhatsApp etc. yes, there might be some genius explanation for it, but even the literary and socially intelligent mind will never come to the comprehension of how many of these devices of our time works. But the truth is that the value they add towards enhancing human endeavour is sacrosanct and undeniable. I used this analogy to indicate that not every historical writings or some medieval philosophy would make sense often when you look at it from human intelligence or simple common sense perspective. However, the facts will always be there to explain why certain things/races are unique even if the human mind struggles to scientifically or archeological, prove such existence. One thing I know about Jews is about their heritage, character and life’s philosophy. The truth is that they are consistently successful in any endeavour they choose to pursue and are creators of wealth and sustainers of it. Just look around you now and you’ll confirm my assertion.
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Knut Robert Knutsen
Knut Robert Knutsen A lot of interesting stuff there. A lot of early history of religions or early history of any kind, is haevily mythologized.
Genetic anthropology certainly seems to have cleared up some things about history and many disciplines have been at work tryi…See More
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Chinazor Onianwah
Chinazor Onianwah Ok. We agree that a lot of the stuff does not make sense. Alex Ebimobowei Babudoh, you just spewed one of the most arcane stereotype about Jews. The logic is that they are consistently successful, therefore anyone who is consistently successful as a Jew must be a Jew. On the polar end of that argument is many blacks in America are criminals and not successful therefore anyone who is not consistently successful and criminal must be black. I can explain to you the origin of the stereotype: Usury. At a time when Jesus condemned it and Islam condemned it, only Jews saw it as a normal practice. Yes. It gave them monopoly over access to money. It was so terrible that William Shakespeare wrote a play based on it- The merchant of Venice. I can discuss William Shakespeare and the origin of his plays but that’s another chapter right there.
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